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Subject: Re: A question for the experts
Author: Anneza   (guest, 163.200.81.4)
Date: August 27, 2003 at 12:36:14 AM
Reply to: A question for the experts by Magia
I would guess that the -ph- spelling is because the New Testament was written in Greek. It would truly amaze me if Aramaic, which is a Semitic language, had the same spelling convention.

In English we spell it Cephas, still with an S sound at the beginning! What does it look like in the Spanish translation?

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