|Subject:||Re: A question for the experts|
|Author:||Anneza (guest, 22.214.171.124)|
|Date:||August 27, 2003 at 12:36:14 AM|
|Reply to:||A question for the experts by Magia|
I would guess that the -ph- spelling is because the New Testament was written in Greek. It would truly amaze me if Aramaic, which is a Semitic language, had the same spelling convention.
In English we spell it Cephas, still with an S sound at the beginning! What does it look like in the Spanish translation?
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