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I would guess that the -ph- spelling is because the New Testament was written in Greek. It would truly amaze me if Aramaic, which is a Semitic language, had the same spelling convention.

In English we spell it Cephas, still with an S sound at the beginning! What does it look like in the Spanish translation?

• A question for the experts - Magia  Aug 26 2003, 10:19:39 PM
  • I believe the original Aramaic pronounciation was - - Shay  Aug 27 2003, 9:00:26 AM
    • Thaks Shay!n/t - Magia  Aug 27 2003, 12:48:14 PM
  • Re: A question for the experts - Anneza  Aug 27 2003, 12:36:14 AM
    • Re: A question for the experts - Magia  Aug 27 2003, 8:06:15 AM
  • Pls, excuse my Spl. (meant "Latinised" and "language".)n/t - Magia  Aug 26 2003, 10:23:58 PM