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evolution of language
do you think that with time, languages progress to give humans a more accurate means of expression?
for instance the average joe in 2000BC was limited compared to the average joe in 2000ADwhich has the advantage, a human with a more limited word base or one with an extensive one.
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I find it depends on how much "linguistic expression" is needed. For example, let's say you need to give someone directions. If the place you are giving directions to is the closest bathroom or high school gymnasium, you wouldn't need as many words as if you were trying to give directions to the municipal courthouse or a cool outdoor concert. The more information needed, the more words required (at least, I've found it to be that way).Phyllis
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The richness of language and chronological time seem to bear little correlation.
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I love it when a newcomer, such as yourself, Organix, introduces him- or herself with an interesting posting. You get "coolness points" right away for this. :)I suppose the obvious answer to your question would be that a human with an extensive word base would have an advantage -- simply by virtue of the fact that he/she would be able to express him/herself more elaborately.HOWEVER... The impressiveness of articulate self-expression is lost on an audience who might not happen to be fluently conversant in your own particular language. In which case, a human with a limited word base in *several* different languages -- or even in the universal language of Esperanto -- would clearly have the advantage.-- Nanaea
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