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Re: Harry from Greek?
I actually know a person in Athens called Harrys, and I mean Harrys as it is, not as a form of any other name. Honestly now, why Harry in english is closer to Henry and not closer to Greek Harrys???
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Because Henry was introduced into England by the Normans and its pronunciation was close to "Herry" at that time. You don't discover the history of a name simply by comparing its present-day sound to that of names in any other language of the world. You have to look at where the name comes from in the historical record. If you go back in early English history, it is quite clear that Harry and Henry were considered the same name because the same person is often referred to by both names. And there is no evidence for the use of Harrys, Haralampos, or any other similar Greek name in medieval England.
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Of course I understand and I agree with: "You don't discover the history of a name simply by comparing its present-day sound to that of names in any other language of the world." But we all know that the first things you check in comparative lingustics are phonetics and spelling, since most of the time, especially for old languages there is no evidence! For example, we know that at least 12% of English is from Greek,( 35% according to some linguists), and we dont have any evidence for most of that, but does that mean it is not a fact? Anyway, the facts here are that the English name 'Harry' is closer to the Greek 'Harrys' in both pronunciation and spelling than it is to 'Henry' and it is at least 1500 years older...
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For example, we know that at least 12% of English is from Greek,( 35% according to some linguists), and we dont have any evidence for most of that, but does that mean it is not a fact?This makes absolutely no sense to me. Whether or not the above %'s are true, if we have no evidence for it, it is NOT a "fact", it's merely a speculation. The pronunciations of Harry and Henry were IDENTICAL in medieval England; that's the point that experts on the history of names are making when they show the connection between the two. The modern English pronunciation of "Henry" is newer than the pronunciation as "Harry", based on Norman French. It is of no consequence how old "Harrys" is in Greek in deciding whether or not the modern English name Harry is connected with it.
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Firstly I wish to excuse my English...this is responsible for the misunderstanding!
What I meant by "For example, we know that at least 12% of English is from Greek,( 35% according to some linguists), and we dont have any evidence for most of that, but does that mean it is not a fact?"
is that:
Even if we dont have evidence for how some Greek words reached the english language, it doesnt change the fact that indeed they came from Greek, mainly because they were used in Greek long before they reached english (or any other language).
Now, about 'Harrys', I didnt claim in any of my previous posts that the English 'Harry' came from Greek 'Harrys'. All I said is that 'Harry' is indeed closer to Greek 'Harrys' than to Norman 'Henry'...and isn't that a fact???PS: I had the precious help of an English friend to write this, whose father's name coincidently is Harry and he wished his name came from Greek because in Greek it means 'attractive'! :)
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Now, about 'Harrys', I didnt claim in any of my previous posts that the English 'Harry' came from Greek 'Harrys'. All I said is that 'Harry' is indeed closer to Greek 'Harrys' than to Norman 'Henry'...and isn't that a fact???No, what Cleveland is saying is that the pronunciation of Harry is the same as the Norman pronunciation of Henry - they were the same name in Norman times. There is no logical or linguistic connection with Harrys.
ChrisellAll we have to decide is what to do with the time that is given us. - J.R.R. Tolkien.

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