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ArchivesHistory of BEATUS / BEATA
I was wondering whether BEATUS was used in the Roman world before there were Christians. If so, I suspect it was the expression of the parents' wish that their child should be happy. Maybe it was just the translation of the (old) Greek name MAKARIOS?
If the name did not exist before Christian times - does this mean it came up because of Jesus' Beatitudes? Could it have been designed to anticipate the possible fate of a Christian child in a non-Christian world: to suffer persecution? C.f. Matthew 5:10-12.
Or if it did exist - did maybe Christians reinterpret the name in this way?
If the name did not exist before Christian times - does this mean it came up because of Jesus' Beatitudes? Could it have been designed to anticipate the possible fate of a Christian child in a non-Christian world: to suffer persecution? C.f. Matthew 5:10-12.
Or if it did exist - did maybe Christians reinterpret the name in this way?
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Replies
Thanks to all of you! nm
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According to Kajanto's data (The Latin Cognomina, Roma, 1982) Beatus/Beata is a cognomen, not a praenomen, (cognomen were hereditary and not choosed by parents, more or less like our family names) from the Roman Empire age and related with first Christians. Roberto Faure reports that among these first Christians the name should have the symbolical meaning of "blessed in Christ's faith".
So:
Beatus/Beata were not used before the Christians.
It is impossible that in first times it was the expression of the parents' wish about their child, because it was a cognomen, so an inherited part of the name.
Perhaps in some cases, a Greek Makarios used Beatus to "translate" his name in Latin, but that is anecdotal.
The creation of Beatus/Beata is related with Christians' joy of her new life after a conversion (change in first names and/or in full names after a conversion was usual among first Christians and it is nowadays usual among new Muslims, for instance), not with Jesus' beatitudes nor to anticipate the possible fate of a Christian child.
So:
Beatus/Beata were not used before the Christians.
It is impossible that in first times it was the expression of the parents' wish about their child, because it was a cognomen, so an inherited part of the name.
Perhaps in some cases, a Greek Makarios used Beatus to "translate" his name in Latin, but that is anecdotal.
The creation of Beatus/Beata is related with Christians' joy of her new life after a conversion (change in first names and/or in full names after a conversion was usual among first Christians and it is nowadays usual among new Muslims, for instance), not with Jesus' beatitudes nor to anticipate the possible fate of a Christian child.
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It was an adjective; therefore potentially a nickname, though these weren't usually recorded (unless they were semiofficial, like being known as Africanus or Germanicus etc on the basis of one's military record). But I'd expect Latin-speaking people to use Felix rather than Beatus ... not sure why, though! Possibly because classical gods didn't go around making people beati ... felices, yes. So it would be useful for Christians to use a specifically non-pagan term or name. I'll check at home! Interesting question - thanks.
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beatus did describe a fruitful land
Hi Andy!
I remember Latin lessons where I have been told that beatus or beata was used to describe good land that brought fruit. It was not used to describe a happy person. Therefore I don't think the Romans used either beatus or beata as first names but I am not sure about it.
I do not know about Jesus' Beatitudes. The thought however is interesting.
Hi Andy!
I remember Latin lessons where I have been told that beatus or beata was used to describe good land that brought fruit. It was not used to describe a happy person. Therefore I don't think the Romans used either beatus or beata as first names but I am not sure about it.
I do not know about Jesus' Beatitudes. The thought however is interesting.
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Beatus ille
The Latin expression which you are refering to is Beatus ille (Happy is the man...), coming from the opening words of Horace's second Epode, that praises country life, the pristine joys of working one’s own land free from exploitation.
This expression was used as literary cliché in European literature and it is related with literary works where the country life, the fields, the meadows, the sheperds... are idealised (it is very typical of Garcilaso de la Vega's work, for instance).
The Latin adjectives beatus, beata were used, of course, to describe happy people and some Latin phrases used in English include them: "beatus homo qui invenit sapentiam" (motto of Gymnasium Apeldoorn) or "beati possidentes" (Euripides).
The Latin expression which you are refering to is Beatus ille (Happy is the man...), coming from the opening words of Horace's second Epode, that praises country life, the pristine joys of working one’s own land free from exploitation.
This expression was used as literary cliché in European literature and it is related with literary works where the country life, the fields, the meadows, the sheperds... are idealised (it is very typical of Garcilaso de la Vega's work, for instance).
The Latin adjectives beatus, beata were used, of course, to describe happy people and some Latin phrases used in English include them: "beatus homo qui invenit sapentiam" (motto of Gymnasium Apeldoorn) or "beati possidentes" (Euripides).
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